A 67-year-old woman comes to the office after a recent hospitalization. She had abrupt onset of right arm weakness and difficulty speaking a week ago while playing cards with friends. The patient's friends called 911, but her symptoms had resolved completely by the time she arrived at the hospital.
MRI of the brain showed no acute abnormalities. A carotid ultrasound showed 60% stenosis in the left internal carotid artery and 50% stenosis in the right internal carotid artery. ECG showed normal sinus rhythm with occasional atrial premature beats, and 48 hours of telemetry monitoring was unrevealing. Echocardiogram showed mild left atrial enlargement, mild left ventricular hypertrophy, and normal left ventricular systolic function.
Since discharge, the patient has had no recurrence of symptoms and has been able to resume her normal daily activities. Her other medical problems include hypertension and hyperlipidemia. She has no history of angina or coronary artery disease. Medications include lisinopril, metoprolol, amlodipine, and aspirin.
Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 125/70 mm Hg, and pulse is 78/min; BMI is 26 kg/m2. Estimated jugular venous pressure is 8 cm H2O. There is normal S1 and S2 with a 2/6 ejection-type murmur at the right upper sternal border. Peripheral pulses are 2+ and no edema is present. The cranial nerves are intact and deep-tendon reflexes are normal. Muscle strength is symmetrically intact.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following would be the most appropriate next step to prevent future neurovascular events in this patient?
A) Carotid endarterectomy
B) Clopidogrel
C) Niacin
D) Statin therapy
E) Warfarin anticoagulation
Correct Answer:
Verified
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