An 84-year-old man is brought to the office by his daughter for increased confusion and agitation. He has a history of moderate Alzheimer dementia with worsening cognitive and functional status over the past 6 months. He now requires 24-hour supervision that involves shifts of family members and caregivers. The daughter notes that the patient frequently wanders and has been more restless and agitated, especially in the evenings. He frequently yells when he can't find misplaced objects. He is increasingly paranoid and accuses the caregivers of stealing his money and important papers. The patient has no pain or discomfort. Medications include donepezil, multivitamins, tamsulosin, and acetaminophen.
Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination is unremarkable. The patient is oriented to person and recognizes his daughter but is disoriented to time and place. He recalls 0 of 3 objects after 5 minutes.
Complete blood count and comprehensive chemistry panel are within normal limits.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's neuropsychiatric symptoms?
A) Begin memantine on an increasing-dose schedule
B) Plan for behavioral and environmental therapy
C) Prescribe as-needed low-dose lorazepam
D) Start low-dose risperidone at bedtime
E) Start selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor
Correct Answer:
Verified
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