A 22-year-old woman comes to the office due to redness and discharge from her right eye for the past 3 days. She also has had a gritty sensation and crusting in the eye, which is "stuck shut" in the morning. Today, the patient noticed that her left eye has also become red. She has had no visual disturbances, photophobia, or eye pain or itching and reports no recent upper respiratory infection or exposure to a person with similar symptoms. The patient does not use contact lenses. Her other medical problem includes allergic rhinitis, for which she takes fexofenadine as needed.
Physical examination reveals bilateral diffuse conjunctival erythema with scant discharge that does not reappear when the initial discharge is wiped away. No corneal opacity is noted. Visual acuity is normal. The remainder of the physical examination is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's eye symptoms?
A) Ophthalmology referral
B) Symptomatic therapy only
C) Topical antibiotic
D) Topical glucocorticoid
E) Topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q591: A 70-year-old man comes to the office
Q592: A 72-year-old man comes to the office
Q593: A 40-year-old woman comes to the office
Q594: An 18-year-old previously healthy woman comes to
Q595: A 67-year-old man comes to the office
Q597: A 65-year-old man comes to the physician
Q598: A 65-year-old Asian woman comes to the
Q599: A 72-year-old man is scheduled for right
Q600: A 65-year-old man is evaluated for a
Q601: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents