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A 22-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office Due to Redness

Question 596

Multiple Choice

A 22-year-old woman comes to the office due to redness and discharge from her right eye for the past 3 days.  She also has had a gritty sensation and crusting in the eye, which is "stuck shut" in the morning.  Today, the patient noticed that her left eye has also become red.  She has had no visual disturbances, photophobia, or eye pain or itching and reports no recent upper respiratory infection or exposure to a person with similar symptoms.  The patient does not use contact lenses.  Her other medical problem includes allergic rhinitis, for which she takes fexofenadine as needed.
Physical examination reveals bilateral diffuse conjunctival erythema with scant discharge that does not reappear when the initial discharge is wiped away.  No corneal opacity is noted.  Visual acuity is normal.  The remainder of the physical examination is normal.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's eye symptoms?


A) Ophthalmology referral
B) Symptomatic therapy only
C) Topical antibiotic
D) Topical glucocorticoid
E) Topical nonsteroidal anti-inflammatory drug

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