An 18-year-old previously healthy woman comes to the office due to redness and discharge from both eyes for the past several days. The patient also has itchiness and irritation in the eyes and has awakened with crusting in the morning. She has had a runny nose and sneezing for the last 4 days but no fever, eye pain, or photophobia. She does not wear contact lenses and her vision is unchanged. The patient is visiting her aunt, who has 2 small children; they are not ill but have a pet cat.
Eye examination reveals diffuse bilateral conjunctival erythema and edema with clear discharge. Pupils are equal and reactive bilaterally. Vision acuity is normal. No corneal opacities are present and the anterior chambers appear grossly normal.
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Reassurance only
B) Topical antibiotic
C) Topical antihistamine
D) Topical corticosteroid
E) Topical cyclosporine
Correct Answer:
Verified
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