A 40-year-old woman comes to the office due to a red left eye. She was feeling well until 2 days ago when she awoke in the morning with sudden onset of redness and tearing of the eye. The patient has had no ocular itching or pain, but says, "I feel like there is something caught in my eye but I can't find anything." Medical history is notable for asthma, for which she uses an albuterol inhaler as needed. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. She works as an elementary school teacher and lives with her husband and 2 teenage children.
Vital signs are normal. Examination shows normal extraocular movements, pupillary reflexes, funduscopic findings, and visual acuity. Inspection of the eye is as shown in the exhibit.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient's eye condition?
A) Erythromycin ointment
B) Lubricating eyedrops
C) Systemic glucocorticoids
D) Topical antihistamines
E) Urgent laser iridotomy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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