A 63-year-old woman comes to the office for her annual checkup. Her medical problems include intermittent insomnia and chronic headaches and stomach pains for several years. She reports no significant change in the frequency and intensity of her headaches or any change in bowel habits. The patient has a history of major depressive disorder treated with citalopram 20 mg. She reports that her mood is "okay" and her appetite is good. She does not use tobacco or alcohol but confides, "I'm worried about my husband because he has been under a lot of stress lately and his drinking is getting worse. We have been arguing and he promises that he will cut down his drinking, but it has been difficult."
Vital signs are within normal limits. Physical examination shows normal heart and lungs; a soft, nontender abdomen with normal bowel sounds; and some mild bruising on her arms that the patient says she sustained while moving heavy furniture. She is tearful when discussing her husband but denies depression or suicidal thoughts.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Encourage participation in an Alcoholics Anonymous family support group
B) Enquire about depressive symptoms in greater detail
C) Gently explore the patient's reasons for remaining in the marriage
D) Recommend couple's therapy
E) Screen the patient for intimate partner violence
Correct Answer:
Verified
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