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A 52-Year-Old Man Comes to the Office for Follow-Up of Depression

Question 664

Multiple Choice

A 52-year-old man comes to the office for follow-up of depression.  The patient was initially seen 6 months ago for symptoms of low energy, lack of motivation, anxiety, hypersomnia, increased appetite, weight gain, and poor concentration.  At that time, he was having difficulty functioning at his job as an accountant and was worried about being fired for poor performance.  Physical examination was unremarkable and routine laboratory tests were within normal limits.  The patient was diagnosed with major depression and started on sertraline 50 mg.  After several weeks, his dosage was gradually increased to 150 mg and he has steadily improved since then.  The patient has a history of 2 prior major depressive episodes at ages 35 and 49 but was never treated.
At today's visit, he reports that his mood is "good" and that he is functioning well at home and at work.  The patient is tolerating sertraline without difficulty and has no suicidal ideation.  He asks how long he should continue the medication.
Which of the following is the most appropriate recommendation for this patient?


A) Continue sertraline for an additional 3 months
B) Continue sertraline for an additional 6 months
C) Continue sertraline for an additional 1-3 years
D) Gradually taper and discontinue sertraline over 2-4 weeks
E) Gradually taper and discontinue sertraline over 3 months

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