A 61-year-old woman comes to the office due to insomnia. She describes difficulty both falling and staying asleep over the past 6 months. Her insomnia varies and is much worse some days than others. In the mornings, she wakes up half an hour earlier than she would like and rarely feels well rested. The patient has tried several over-the-counter sleep medications, but they make her feel too tired the next day. She is not aware if she snores. The patient drinks a glass of wine several times a week and does not use illicit drugs. She has a history of osteoarthritis and major depression for which she takes ibuprofen and venlafaxine. She has lived alone since her divorce 2 years ago and maintains close relationships with her adult children and grandchildren. The patient is worried about one son who recently lost his job, but she has had no change in mood or appetite. Physical examination is noncontributory.
Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) 2-week sleep diary
B) Cognitive-behavioral therapy
C) Polysomnography
D) Psychiatric evaluation
E) Trial of low-dose zolpidem
Correct Answer:
Verified
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