A 28-year-old African American woman returns to the physician for follow-up of persistent symptoms. She has had a low-grade fever, joint pains, a cough, and shortness of breath for one month. Two weeks ago, she was given a 5-day course of azithromycin without improvement of her symptoms. A chest x-ray showed bilateral upper lobe opacities. She was then prescribed a 10-day course of levofloxacin. She has not noticed any improvement and has now developed painful red bumps on her legs.
She has no other medical problems and takes no other medications. She lives in New York and denies recent travel or any sick contacts. She has been in a relationship with a new male partner for the last 2 months. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.
Her temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg, pulse is 84/min, and respirations are 16/min. The patient's pulse oximetry is 94% on room air. Examination reveals crackles in the upper lungs bilaterally. Tender, erythematous, non-fluctuant nodules are present on the anterior surfaces of both legs. The remainder of the examination is unremarkable.
Repeat chest x-ray shows bilateral upper lobe opacities that are unchanged.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) HIV infection
B) Tricuspid valve endocarditis
C) Mycobacterial infection
D) Nocardiosis
E) Sarcoidosis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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