A 52-year-old man comes to the physician for follow-up on cadaveric renal transplantation done 10 months ago for polycystic kidney disease. His postoperative course was complicated by 2 episodes of acute rejection and an episode of lower gastrointestinal bleeding. These events prompted revision of his immunosuppressive regimen, which now includes prednisone, tacrolimus, mycophenolate, and acyclovir. The patient has no new symptoms. His only other medical problem is diet-controlled type 2 diabetes mellitus.
His blood pressure is 122/70 mm Hg and pulse is 78/min. His BMI is 29 kg/m2. There are no skin rashes. The spleen tip is not palpable. There is no lymphadenopathy.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Urine sediment analysis shows cellular casts. Cytology demonstrates atypical cells with intranuclear inclusions.
Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Chronic allograft nephropathy
B) Diabetic nephropathy
C) Epstein-Barr virus infection
D) Polyomavirus-induced nephropathy
E) Tacrolimus nephropathy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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