A 38-year-old woman comes to the office with 2 weeks of mild headache and nausea. She has a history of end-stage renal disease secondary to lupus nephritis and had an allograft renal transplant a year ago. Her medications include tacrolimus, azathioprine, and prednisone. The patient has also been taking lansoprazole for indigestion for the past 3 weeks. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. To take better care of herself, she has begun eating plenty of fruits and green vegetables and drinking grapefruit juice.
The patient is afebrile. Her blood pressure was 120/70 mm Hg a month ago and is now 150/90 mm Hg. Examination shows clear lung fields, normal heart sounds, and a soft and nontender abdomen. She has mild bilateral hand tremor without muscle weakness or sensory loss. There is no lower extremity edema.
Laboratory results are as follows:
Urinalysis shows clear urine with no protein, blood, cells, or casts. Renal ultrasound shows no abnormalities of the transplanted kidney with no urinary leak or obstruction.
Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's renal failure?
A) Acute transplant rejection
B) BK virus infection
C) Hypertensive nephrosclerosis
D) Recurrence of lupus nephritis
E) Tacrolimus toxicity
Correct Answer:
Verified
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