A 19-year-old woman comes to the clinic due to recurrent headaches. The patient has had headaches for years but thinks they have recently gotten worse; they last several hours and remit spontaneously or after taking over-the-counter acetaminophen. She has no nausea, vomiting, abdominal pain, sweating, or fever. Six months ago, the patient checked her blood pressure at a local pharmacy and was told it was high. She has no other medical issues and takes no prescription medications. Her family history is significant for hypertension and diabetes. Blood pressure is 175/100 mm Hg on the right arm and 170/102 mm Hg on the left arm, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 14/min. On examination, she appears comfortable and cooperative. Peripheral pulses are full and symmetric. Chest examination is unremarkable. A systolic bruit is heard under the right ear. Abdominal examination shows no tenderness or masses. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's hypertension?
A) Coarctation of the aorta
B) Fibromuscular dysplasia
C) Pheochromocytoma
D) Primary hyperaldosteronism
E) Renal artery atherosclerosis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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