A 55-year-old woman comes to the clinic due to foot pain. For the past 4 weeks, the patient has had gradually increasing pain in her left heel. The symptoms are worse when she walks, and lately, it has become difficult to ambulate. The patient recently started an exercise program that includes running, swimming, and bicycling. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 34 kg/m2. Pedal pulses are full and symmetric bilaterally. The ankle has normal range of motion in all directions. Squeezing the heel laterally and medially reproduces the pain. Examination of the forefoot is normal, with no pain on dorsiflexion or plantar flexion of the toes. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) 25-Hydroxyvitamin D level
B) Corticosteroid injection
C) Plantar fascia release surgery
D) Stabilization of the ankle with an air-stirrup brace
E) X-ray of the foot
Correct Answer:
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