A 56-year-old woman comes to the office due to abdominal pain and nausea. The patient has had 2 days of dull, persistent pain in the left lower abdomen that has progressively worsened. She has had no appetite and vomited once today. In addition, the patient has had mild urinary urgency with no dysuria or hematuria. She has not had a bowel movement during this period but is passing flatus. Medical history includes hypertension, type 2 diabetes mellitus, and an ovarian cyst. Temperature is 38 C (100.4 F) , blood pressure is 134/82 mm Hg, and pulse is 94/min. BMI is 33 kg/m2. Physical examination shows left lower quadrant abdominal tenderness with no rebound tenderness or guarding. No palpable abdominal mass or organomegaly is present. Bowel sounds are normoactive in all quadrants. The remainder of the examination shows no abnormalities. Urine dipstick is positive for leukocyte esterase and negative for nitrite. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Acute bacterial cystitis
B) Acute diverticulitis
C) Ovarian torsion
D) Ruptured ovarian cyst
E) Small bowel obstruction
Correct Answer:
Verified
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