A 78-year-old woman comes to the office due to an enlarging growth on the right wrist for the past year. The growth does not bother the patient. Examination findings are shown in the exhibit.
The lesion is round, rubbery, mobile, and nontender; it transilluminates on penlight examination. There is no overlying skin change. Grip strength and sensation in the hand are intact. Which of the following is the most appropriate initial management for this patient's condition?
A) Intralesional corticosteroid injection
B) Needle aspiration of lesion content
C) Observation
D) Serum cyclic citrullinated peptide antibodies
E) Surgical excision with sac removal
Correct Answer:
Verified
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