A 72-year-old man underwent surgical repair of an aneurysm of the infrarenal aorta. He received perioperative prophylaxis with a second-generation cephalosporin antibiotic. On the first postoperative day he complains of progressive abdominal pain and bloody diarrhea. His temperature is 38.5° C (101° F) , blood pressure is 110/65 mm Hg, pulse is 110/min and respirations are 22/min. His abdomen is mildly distended and tender to palpation. The tenderness is mostly in the left lower quadrant without rebound. Femoral pulses are full and symmetric. His white blood cell count is 12,000/mm3. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
A) Pseudomembranous colitis
B) Invasive infectious diarrhea
C) Aortoenteric fistula
D) Ischemia of the bowel
E) Perforation of the colon
Correct Answer:
Verified
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