A 41-year-old man comes to the office due to abdominal pain and distension. Over the past 2 months, the patient has noted constant, gnawing epigastric pain that intensifies after meals. More recently, his abdomen has become progressively enlarged and uncomfortable. The patient has been admitted to the hospital multiple times due to alcohol-related intoxication and seizures. He does not use tobacco or intravenous drugs. Family history is unremarkable. Temperature is 37.7 C (99.9 F) , blood pressure is 132/78 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. Mental status is normal, and cardiopulmonary examination is unremarkable. The abdomen is grossly distended and mildly tender to palpation in the epigastric region. Shifting dullness is present. A diagnostic paracentesis is performed, which reveals serosanguinous fluid. Analysis of this fluid shows high levels of both total protein and amylase. Serum albumin is 3.4 mg/dL. Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's presentation?
A) Alcoholic cirrhosis
B) Budd-Chiari syndrome
C) Hepatocellular carcinoma
D) Intestinal perforation
E) Lymphoma
F) Pancreatitis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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