A 30-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 24 weeks gestation comes to the office for a prenatal visit. The patient feels well and has no vaginal bleeding, leakage of fluid, or contractions. She has had no headaches, changes in vision, or right upper quadrant pain. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and has had an uncomplicated pregnancy. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 152/88 mm Hg, pulse is 72/min, and respirations are 14/min. Oxygen saturation is 99% on room air. Physical examination is normal. Fetal heart rate is 150/min on Doppler ultrasound. Laboratory results are as follows:
A nonstress test is reactive. Repeat blood pressure is 154/86 mm Hg. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient's hypertension?
A) 24-hour urine collection for total protein
B) Immediate induction of labor
C) Magnesium sulfate infusion
D) No additional management indicated
E) Outpatient bed rest
Correct Answer:
Verified
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