A 12-year-old girl is brought to the office for evaluation of increasing lower abdominal pain. The pain began last week, was initially colicky, and was relieved with ibuprofen. Now the pain is constant and the patient has pain with defecation and a sense of incomplete bowel evacuation. She has had decreased appetite for the last 3 days due to the pain but has had no fever, vomiting, diarrhea, or bloody stool. The patient has had intermittent lower abdominal pain for the last 6 months, but the pain usually resolves after a few days without intervention. She has no medical conditions or prior surgeries. She has not reached menarche. BMI is 19 kg/m2. There is a tender, symmetric suprapubic mass to the level of the umbilicus. External genitalia are normal and breast and pubic hair development is Tanner stage 2. There is a blue-tinged bulge between the labia. Rectal examination reveals an anterior tender, central mass. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) CA-125 and CEA levels
B) Diagnostic laparoscopy
C) Hymenal incision and drainage
D) Hysterosalpingogram
E) Karyotype analysis
F) Uterine myomectomy
Correct Answer:
Verified
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