A 44-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of abnormal uterine bleeding. The patient has had intermenstrual bleeding over the past 3 months. Most of the time, she has had only spotting with wiping, but last week, she had slightly heavier bleeding that required her to use a menstrual pad. In addition to this intermenstrual bleeding, the patient also has monthly menses with 4-5 days of moderate bleeding and slight cramping on the first 2 days that typically resolves with ibuprofen. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. The patient had a bilateral tubal ligation after her last delivery at age 31. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 22 kg/m2. Speculum examination reveals a multiparous cervix with a small amount of bright red blood at the os and no visible cervical or vaginal lesions. On bimanual pelvic examination, the uterus is small, mobile, and nontender. No adnexal masses are palpated. FSH, TSH, and prolactin levels are normal. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's abnormal uterine bleeding?
A) Adenomyosis
B) Endometrial hyperplasia
C) Endometrial polyp
D) Invasive cervical cancer
E) Perimenopause
F) Uterine leiomyomas
Correct Answer:
Verified
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