A 45-year-old woman comes to the office due to increasing difficulty sleeping for the past few months. She is unable to concentrate at work and is not exercising due to fatigue. The patient reports a 4.5-kg (9.9-lb) weight gain and is now unable to wear her normally fitting clothing. She has no mood changes, hair loss, weakness, or changes in bowel or bladder function. She has no chronic medical problems or previous surgeries. The patient's menstrual periods have become irregular over the last 2 years; her last period was 3 months ago. She is currently sexually active. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg and pulse is 80/min. BMI is 31 kg/m2. The patient has moist mucous membranes with normal capillary refill. There is no acanthosis nigricans. The abdomen is obese; there is no hepatosplenomegaly or ascites. On bimanual examination, the uterus is symmetrically enlarged. There are no palpable adnexal masses. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Abdominal CT scan
B) FSH level
C) hCG level
D) Nocturnal polysomnography
E) TSH level
Correct Answer:
Verified
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