A 48-year-old woman comes to the office due to clear, watery vaginal discharge for the past 2 weeks following a hysterectomy and bilateral salpingo-oophorectomy for endometriosis. Her surgery was complicated by severe pelvic adhesions. The discharge occurs throughout the day and night, and as a result, the patient has been using several pads a day. She has no fever, vaginal bleeding, or pelvic pain. The patient does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Vital signs are normal. The patient's abdomen is soft and nontender with a well-healed laparotomy incision. Genitourinary examination shows a well-rugated vaginal mucosa and a pool of clear fluid in the vaginal canal. The vaginal apex appears normal. Wet mount microscopy shows a few squamous epithelial cells and rare leukocytes. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Bacterial vaginosis
B) Pelvic abscess
C) Trichomoniasis
D) Vaginal cuff dehiscence
E) Vesicovaginal fistula
F) Vulvovaginal candidiasis
Correct Answer:
Verified
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