A 54-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to the office due to involuntary loss of urine. The patient is unable to hold her urine during the day but has no loss of urine while sleeping. She is sexually active but has been avoiding intercourse for the past few months because she sometimes has leakage of urine during intercourse. The patient also loses urine when laughing and coughing. She has no chronic medical conditions and takes no daily medications. Her only surgery was a cesarean delivery at age 30 for a pregnancy complicated by pyelonephritis and preterm labor at 34 weeks gestation. Vital signs are normal, and BMI is 38 kg/m2. Pelvic examination shows dribbling of urine when the patient coughs. A postvoid residual is 30 mL. Urinalysis shows no abnormalities. Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this patient's incontinence?
A) Alpha blocker
B) Antimuscarinic agent
C) Cholinergic agonist
D) Intermittent self-catheterization
E) Midurethral sling
F) Postcoital antibiotics
Correct Answer:
Verified
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