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A 34-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office for an Infertility

Question 175

Multiple Choice

A 34-year-old woman comes to the office for an infertility evaluation.  She stopped taking her oral contraceptives a year ago and has not conceived despite unprotected intercourse 2 or 3 times a week.  Since stopping contraception, the patient has had regular menses at 28-day intervals with no intermenstrual bleeding.  On her first day of menses, she typically has severe cramping that causes her to miss work.  The patient has also noticed increasing chronic lower abdominal discomfort and constipation; she has taken multiple over-counter-medications with minimal improvement.  Her mother was diagnosed with ovarian cancer at age 56; family history is otherwise noncontributory.  Vital signs are normal.  BMI is 24 kg/m2.  Pelvic examination shows a mobile, enlarged uterus that is irregular and has a prominent posterior mass.  A urine pregnancy test is negative.  Which of the following is the best next step in evaluation of this patient?


A) CA-125 level
B) CT scan of the abdomen and pelvis
C) Diagnostic laparoscopy
D) Endometrial biopsy
E) Hysterosalpingography
F) Pelvic ultrasound

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