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A 41-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office for Evaluation of Urinary

Question 189

Multiple Choice

A 41-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of urinary incontinence.  The patient has had intermittent leaking of urine for the past 2 years and now feels like she never empties her bladder completely.  She voids every 1-2 hours and still finds her undergarments wet with urine.  The patient has no dysuria, constipation, or pelvic pain.  Her menses are every 26 days and last 6 days, with heavy bleeding and passage of clots on the first 2 days.  She had 3 term vaginal deliveries in her 30s and has had a new sexual partner for the last 6 months.  The patient drinks 2 cups of coffee daily and takes a thiazide diuretic for well-controlled chronic hypertension.  She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs.  Physical examination reveals an enlarged, anteverted, and anteflexed uterus with multiple irregular protrusions.  The remainder of the pelvic examination is normal.  Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?


A) Bacterial overgrowth in the bladder
B) Bladder outlet obstruction
C) Decreased urethral sphincter tone
D) Increased detrusor muscle contractility
E) Insufficient urethral support

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