A 41-year-old woman comes to the office for evaluation of urinary incontinence. The patient has had intermittent leaking of urine for the past 2 years and now feels like she never empties her bladder completely. She voids every 1-2 hours and still finds her undergarments wet with urine. The patient has no dysuria, constipation, or pelvic pain. Her menses are every 26 days and last 6 days, with heavy bleeding and passage of clots on the first 2 days. She had 3 term vaginal deliveries in her 30s and has had a new sexual partner for the last 6 months. The patient drinks 2 cups of coffee daily and takes a thiazide diuretic for well-controlled chronic hypertension. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Physical examination reveals an enlarged, anteverted, and anteflexed uterus with multiple irregular protrusions. The remainder of the pelvic examination is normal. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's symptoms?
A) Bacterial overgrowth in the bladder
B) Bladder outlet obstruction
C) Decreased urethral sphincter tone
D) Increased detrusor muscle contractility
E) Insufficient urethral support
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q184: A 55-year-old woman comes to the office
Q185: A 32-year-old nulliparous woman comes to the
Q186: A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency
Q187: A 57-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to the
Q188: A 58-year-old, postmenopausal woman comes to the
Q190: A 17-year-old girl comes to the office
Q191: A 54-year-old woman comes to the office
Q192: A 70-year-old woman comes to the office
Q193: A 63-year-old woman comes to the office
Q194: The patient is diagnosed with lichen sclerosus.
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents