A 57-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to the office due to vaginal spotting and increasing pelvic pressure. For the past few months, the patient has had pelvic pressure with some associated constipation, for which she takes fiber supplements with no relief. For the last week, she has also had vaginal spotting and occasional passage of small blood clots. The patient was diagnosed with breast cancer 3 years ago and has been taking tamoxifen for the past 2 years because she could not tolerate the adverse effects of aromatase inhibitors. She has no other chronic medical conditions, and her only surgeries were 3 cesarean deliveries in her 30s. Vital signs are normal. BMI is 23 kg/m2. A large, irregular mass is palpable above the symphysis pubis, but there is no fluid wave or tenderness to palpation. On pelvic examination, there are no cervical or vaginal lesions; a small amount of blood is seen at the cervical os. The uterus appears well supported and does not descend with the Valsalva maneuver. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this patient?
A) Adenomyosis
B) Choriocarcinoma
C) Metastatic breast cancer
D) Pelvic organ prolapse
E) Sarcoma botryoides
F) Uterine sarcoma
Correct Answer:
Verified
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