A 32-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to severe pelvic pain. The patient developed pelvic cramping 2 days ago, the day after her menstrual period ended. She describes the pain as "worse than labor contractions," and it has been unrelieved by ibuprofen. The patient has monthly menstrual cycles with heavy flow, and she occasionally passes clots. She has no chronic medical conditions. Her only surgery was a dilation and curettage for a spontaneous abortion 5 years ago. The patient is sexually active and does not use routine contraception. Blood pressure is 140/90 mm Hg and pulse is 113/min. Pelvic examination shows an irregularly enlarged uterus. The cervix is dilated 5 cm with a spherical mass visible through the external os. The mass is firm and round, and slight bleeding is noted around it. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's presentation?
A) Condylomata acuminata
B) Hydatidiform mole
C) Prolapsed leiomyoma uteri
D) Retained tampon
E) Sarcoma botryoides
Correct Answer:
Verified
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