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A 36-Year-Old Woman Comes to the Office Due to Vaginal

Question 275

Multiple Choice

A 36-year-old woman comes to the office due to vaginal spotting for the past 4 days.  The patient has a history of heavy menstrual bleeding for which she had a progestin-containing intrauterine device placed 3 years ago.  She has been amenorrhoeic for the past 2 years but started having vaginal spotting a few days ago and some mild pelvic cramping.  The patient has no significant medical history and has never been pregnant.  She has no prior sexually transmitted infections.  BMI is 30 kg/m2.  Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 80/min, and respirations are 18/min.  Physical examination shows right adnexal tenderness and a closed cervix.  Urine pregnancy test is positive.  Transabdominal ultrasound shows a small uterus with a thin endometrium and an intrauterine device in place.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Diagnostic laparoscopy
B) Endometrial biopsy
C) FSH, TSH, and prolactin levels
D) Intrauterine device removal
E) Transvaginal ultrasound

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