A 37-year-old woman, gravida 2, para 1, comes to the physician for a routine prenatal visit. Her estimated gestation age is 16 weeks based on last menstrual period. She has been married for 8 years and has a healthy 5-year-old son. The woman is healthy and has no relatives with genetic disorders, intellectual disability, developmental delay, or autism. She has been intermittently compliant with prenatal vitamins due to "morning sickness." Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following fetal conditions is the most likely cause of these laboratory results?
A) Diamniotic, dichorionic placentation
B) Failure of primary neurulation
C) Meiotic nondisjunction of fetal chromosome 18
D) Meiotic nondisjunction of fetal chromosome 21
E) Paraumbilical bowel evisceration
Correct Answer:
Verified
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