A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 35 weeks gestation comes to the emergency department due to possible leakage of amniotic fluid. The patient has had clear vaginal discharge for the past few hours. She has had no vaginal bleeding or contractions. Fetal movement is normal. The patient's pregnancy has been otherwise normal. She has no chronic medical conditions, and her only medication is a daily prenatal vitamin. Blood pressure is 128/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 84/min. The abdomen is soft and has no fundal tenderness. On sterile speculum examination, there is no pooling of fluid; nitrazine testing is negative. Microscopy reveals no ferning, clue cells, or motile organisms. A nonstress test is performed for 40 minutes, and results are shown in the exhibit.
Ultrasound results are as follows:
Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 24-hour continuous fetal monitoring
B) Contraction stress test
C) Immediate delivery
D) Reassurance and routine care only
E) Umbilical artery Doppler ultrasonography
Correct Answer:
Verified
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