A 22-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 37 weeks gestation comes to labor and delivery for intermittent leakage of fluid for the past 6 hours. The patient has had some intermittent green-tinged fluid and is now having regular, painful contractions every 3-4 minutes. She has had no vaginal bleeding, and fetal movement is normal. The patient has had an uncomplicated pregnancy, and her group B Streptococcus culture was negative a week ago. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no surgeries. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 90/68 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. Fetal heart rate tracing is shown in the exhibit.
Sterile speculum examination confirms rupture of membranes with meconium-stained amniotic fluid. On digital cervical examination, the cervix is 6 cm dilated, 90% effaced, and the fetal vertex is at +1 station. The fetal heart rate pattern is unchanged with maternal repositioning and oxygen administration. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amnioinfusion
B) Biophysical profile
C) Cesarean delivery
D) Oxytocin augmentation
E) Vacuum-assisted vaginal delivery
Correct Answer:
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