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A 38-Year-Old Woman, Gravida 1 Aborta 1, Comes to the Office

Question 287

Multiple Choice

A 38-year-old woman, gravida 1 aborta 1, comes to the office for follow-up a week after suction curettage.  The patient initially presented 7 weeks after her last menstrual period for an initial prenatal appointment.  At that time, she had breast tenderness but no abdominal pain, nausea, or vaginal bleeding.  During that visit, ultrasound revealed an empty gestational sac.  β-hCG level was 53,256 IU/L.  The patient returned a week later and repeat ultrasound confirmed a missed abortion.  Suction curettage was performed and the pathological specimen from the procedure indicated a diagnosis of hydatidiform mole.  Today, the patient has minimal bleeding but no pain, fevers, chills, or abnormal vaginal discharge.  Blood pressure is 110/80 mm Hg and weight is 55 kg (121.3 lb) .  Pelvic examination shows minimal dark red blood in the vaginal vault and no active bleeding.  On bimanual examination, the uterus is small and nontender.  No adnexal masses are palpated.  β-hCG level is 1,412 IU/L.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Chemotherapy
B) Contraception for at least 6 months
C) Hysterectomy
D) Parental karyotype
E) Repeat suction curettage
F) Serial CA-125 levels

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