A 40-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to nausea, vomiting, and dizziness. The patient has been unable to tolerate any oral intake over the last 2 days. She has had no fevers, chills, diarrhea, or constipation. She reports no sick contacts. The patient has a history of migraines for which she takes daily preventive treatment, but she has been unable to take her medications for the past several days due to nausea. Her last menstrual period was approximately 8 weeks ago, and she has a history of irregular menses. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 90/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 112/min. BMI is 32 kg/m2. Physical examination shows dry mucous membranes, decreased skin turgor, and prolonged capillary refill. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Pelvic examination shows a 12-week-size uterus and bilateral adnexal masses. Pelvic ultrasound shows a uterus filled with multiple small cysts but no embryo. The ovaries are 10 cm bilaterally with a multilocular cystic appearance. Urine pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely mechanism of this patient's adnexal pathology?
A) Excessive intra-ovarian androgen conversion
B) Extrauterine implantation of a developing blastocyst
C) Failure of follicular rupture during ovulation
D) Ovarian hyperstimulation from abnormal trophoblastic proliferation
E) Somatic differentiation of primordial germ cells
Correct Answer:
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