A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, at 36 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. The patient has noticed less fetal movement than normal. She has had no vaginal bleeding, contraction pain, or leakage of fluid. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and takes a daily prenatal vitamin. She previously smoked a pack of cigarettes daily but decreased to a quarter pack daily after becoming pregnant. Her prenatal course has been uncomplicated; a first-trimester ultrasound showed a viable intrauterine pregnancy and multiple intramural and submucosal leiomyomas. Vital signs are normal. Fundal height is 38 cm. A nonstress test is reactive. Ultrasound shows a fetus in frank breech presentation with an estimated fetal weight at the 80th percentile for gestational age, a fundal placenta, and an amniotic fluid index of 15 cm. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's fetal presentation?
A) Amniotic fluid index
B) Estimated fetal weight
C) Parity
D) Placental location
E) Tobacco use
F) Uterine leiomyomas
Correct Answer:
Verified
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