A 37-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, comes to the office to establish prenatal care. Her last menstrual period was 10 weeks ago. The patient has had some brown vaginal discharge and pelvic pressure over the past several days, but no frank blood or abdominal pain. She also reports mild nausea but no vomiting. The patient was undergoing infertility treatment and had several failed in vitro fertilization cycles before this spontaneous pregnancy. She takes a daily prenatal vitamin and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 130/80 mm Hg and pulse is 92/min. Speculum examination shows thick brown discharge in the vaginal vault, but no active bleeding. A 12-week-size uterus and bilateral adnexal masses are palpated on bimanual examination. Bedside pelvic ultrasound reveals bilaterally enlarged ovaries and an enlarged uterus filled with a heterogeneous mass composed of cystic structures. A urine pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Administration of misoprostol
B) Diagnostic laparoscopy
C) Observation and serial β-hCG levels
D) Obtaining a CA-125 level
E) Repeat ultrasound in 1 week
F) Suction curettage
Correct Answer:
Verified
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