A 36-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0, comes to the office for an initial prenatal visit. The patient recently immigrated to the United States and has not received prenatal care. She is at 22 weeks gestation by a sure, regular last menstrual period. Vital signs are normal. Height is 152.5 cm (5 ft 0 in) . BMI is 26 kg/m2. Fundal height is 27 cm. Routine prenatal laboratory results include:
Ultrasound reveals a male fetus with an edematous scalp and nuchal fold. The fetal abdomen contains a large amount of echolucent fluid. The biparietal diameter and femur length measure at 22 weeks gestation. The single deepest pocket of amniotic fluid is 12 cm, and the placenta is thickened to 6 cm. Fetal heart rate is 170/min. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this fetal presentation?
A) Achondroplasia
B) Alpha-thalassemia major
C) Beckwith-Wiedemann syndrome
D) Cystic fibrosis
E) Turner syndrome
Correct Answer:
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