A 20-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to vaginal bleeding and lower abdominal pain that began 3 days ago. The patient describes the bleeding as heavier than a period; she passed some vaginal clots a few hours ago. Menarche was at age 13, and she has often gone months without a menstrual period. The patient's last menstrual period was approximately 7 weeks ago. She is sexually active and uses condoms for contraception. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 120/74 mm Hg, and pulse is 80/min. Abdominal examination shows mild lower abdominal tenderness but no rebound or guarding. On speculum examination, there is no active vaginal bleeding, and the cervical os is closed. Laboratory results are as follows:
A transvaginal ultrasound does not visualize an intrauterine pregnancy, free fluid, or adnexal masses. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Anti-D immunoglobulin
B) Diagnostic laparoscopy
C) Methotrexate administration
D) Reassurance and observation only
E) Repeat quantitative β-hCG in 48 hours
F) Transabdominal ultrasound
Correct Answer:
Verified
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