A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for a postpartum visit. Three weeks ago, the patient had a spontaneous vaginal delivery of a 4.2-kg (9-lb 2-oz) male infant after an induction of labor for gestational hypertension. The patient was treated for asymptomatic bacteriuria in the first trimester but had an otherwise uncomplicated pregnancy. Her labor lasted 30 hours, and she pushed for 4 hours. Immediately after delivery, the patient developed uterine atony that resolved with intravenous oxytocin and bimanual massage. The patient had no additional postpartum complications and went home the next day. She has had light vaginal bleeding since delivery, with no passage of clots or pelvic pain. The patient is breastfeeding exclusively, and reports fatigue due to frequent sleep interruption, but otherwise feels well. Blood pressure is 122/74 mm Hg and pulse is 82/min. BMI is 24 kg/m². Physical examination is unremarkable. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 2-hour (75 gm) glucose tolerance test
B) 24-hour urine total protein collection
C) Pelvic ultrasound
D) Screening for intimate partner violence
E) Urinalysis and urine culture
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q365: A 26-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 2,
Q366: A 30-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q367: A 21-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q368: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q369: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 3 para 0
Q371: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q372: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q373: A 39-year-old woman, gravida 1 para
Q374: A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q375: Bimanual massage of the uterus is performed,
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents