A 29-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for a routine postpartum visit. Six weeks ago, she delivered a 4.2-kg (9 lb 5 oz) girl by cesarean delivery for cephalopelvic disproportion. The pregnancy was complicated by gestational diabetes mellitus, which was controlled with diet and exercise, and preeclampsia without severe features. Since the delivery, the patient has been feeling well but continues to have daily light vaginal bleeding of dark red or brown blood. She is breastfeeding exclusively and is not on contraception. She has no chronic medical conditions and has had no other surgeries. Her last Pap test 2 years ago was normal. Blood pressure is 122/78 mm Hg and pulse is 87/min. BMI is 30 kg/m2. The lower abdominal incision is well healed. On speculum examination, there is a small amount of scant brown discharge in the vaginal vault and no cervical lesions. The remainder of the physical examination is normal. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) 2-hour (75-g) oral glucose tolerance test
B) 24-hour total urine protein collection
C) Endometrial biopsy
D) Pap test with human papillomavirus cotesting
E) Urine culture
Correct Answer:
Verified
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