A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the emergency department due to sudden-onset heavy vaginal bleeding. For the last 4 hours, she has felt weak and has had heavy bleeding that has soaked 2 pads per hour. She has no associated fever, nausea, vomiting, or abdominal pain. Two weeks ago, the patient had a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery complicated by postpartum bleeding from a large vaginal laceration that required extensive repair. She had a blood transfusion on postpartum day 1 and was discharged home on postpartum day 3. Temperature is 36.7 C (98 F) , blood pressure is 100/52 mm Hg, and pulse is 98/min. The abdomen is soft and nontender. Pelvic examination shows a well-approximated vaginal laceration. The cervix is slightly dilated and has active bleeding from the os, but no cervical or additional vaginal lacerations are present. The uterus is small, firm, mobile, and nontender. Laboratory results are as follows:
Pelvic ultrasound shows no endometrial masses or increased vascularity of the uterus. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's postpartum hemorrhage?
A) Gestational trophoblastic disease
B) Postpartum endometritis
C) Retained products of conception
D) Uterine atony
E) Vaginal hematoma
F) Von Willebrand disease
Correct Answer:
Verified
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