A 27-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 40 weeks gestation has a forceps-assisted vaginal delivery after pushing for 2 hours. She was diagnosed with preeclampsia with severe features on admission and is receiving a magnesium sulfate infusion. Her first pregnancy ended with a cesarean delivery at 39 weeks gestation for breech presentation. Temperature is 37.2 C (99 F) , blood pressure is 150/100 mm Hg, and pulse is 112/min. Ten minutes after delivery, the placenta delivers with gentle traction, and the patient develops profuse vaginal bleeding. Bimanual massage reveals a firm, nontender uterus with the fundus at the level of the umbilicus. Pelvic examination shows a right vaginal sidewall defect. There is minimal bleeding from the cervical os, and the perineum is intact. Which of the following is the most likely cause of this patient's bleeding?
A) Endometritis
B) Genital tract trauma
C) Placenta accreta
D) Uterine atony
E) Uterine rupture
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q371: A 34-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q372: A 28-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 0,
Q373: A 39-year-old woman, gravida 1 para
Q374: A 24-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q375: Bimanual massage of the uterus is performed,
Q377: A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q378: A 32-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1,
Q379: A 34-year-old woman is evaluated in the
Q380: A 31-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1,
Q381: During the patient's evaluation, her blood pressure
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents