A 31-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, is seen in the hospital on postoperative day 2 due to lower abdominal pain, chills, and pain with sitting. The patient initially planned to have a home delivery but came to the hospital when she had no contractions a day after spontaneous rupture of membranes. After a 26-hour induction of labor, she had a primary cesarean delivery for arrest of descent. The patient has asthma controlled with a rescue inhaler. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Temperature is 38.3 C (100.9 F) , blood pressure is 100/60 mm Hg, and pulse is 96/min. Cardiopulmonary examination is normal. The breasts are full but have no erythema or fluctuant masses. The uterine fundus is firm and tender to palpation. There is scant serosanguineous drainage from the lower aspect of the incision. Pelvic examination shows a small amount of blood on the perineal pad with mildly malodorous discharge. Bilateral lower extremities are symmetric with minimal pedal edema. Which of the following is the best regimen for treating this patient's condition?
A) Ceftriaxone
B) Ceftriaxone plus doxycycline
C) Clindamycin plus gentamicin
D) Dicloxacillin
E) Penicillin
F) Vancomycin
Correct Answer:
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