A 29-year-old woman, gravida 2 para 1, at 41 weeks gestation comes to the office for a routine prenatal visit. The patient has had no abdominal pain, leakage of fluid, or vaginal bleeding. Fetal movement is normal. The patient has had an uncomplicated pregnancy. An anatomy ultrasound at 20 weeks gestation was normal. Group B Streptococcus screening at 37 weeks gestation was negative. Her prior pregnancy ended in a post-term vaginal delivery. The patient has no chronic medical conditions and does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. Blood pressure is 120/70 mm Hg and pulse is 72/min. BMI is 29 kg/m2. Fundal height is 37 cm. Nonstress test shows moderate variability, multiple accelerations, and no decelerations. Ultrasound reveals a fetus in vertex presentation, and the single deepest pocket of amniotic fluid is 1.2 cm. Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?
A) Amnioinfusion
B) Biophysical profile
C) Cesarean delivery
D) Contraction stress test
E) Induction of labor
F) Routine prenatal visit in 1 week
Correct Answer:
Verified
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