A 72-year-old man comes to the office because of a skin lesion on his hand that first appeared 6 months ago. The lesion does not itch or cause pain. The patient has had similar lesions on his face; some spontaneously resolved, and some were successfully treated with topical liquid nitrogen therapy. Skin examination reveals a 1.3-cm lesion, as shown in the exhibit;
it is nontender. Which of the following is the most appropriate next step in management of this patient?
A) Biopsy of the lesion
B) Liquid nitrogen if there is no regression in 6 months
C) Liquid nitrogen therapy now
D) Topical imiquimod now
E) Topical retinoid now
Correct Answer:
Verified
Q147: A 2-week-old boy is brought to the
Q148: A 65-year-old woman is brought to the
Q149: A 16-year-old boy comes to the office
Q150: A 7-month-old girl is brought to the
Q151: A 25-year-old African-American medical student comes to
Q153: A 43-year old man comes to the
Q154: A 4-month-old boy is brought to the
Q155: A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician
Q156: A 62-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her
Q157: A 62-year-old Caucasian woman presents to her
Unlock this Answer For Free Now!
View this answer and more for free by performing one of the following actions
Scan the QR code to install the App and get 2 free unlocks
Unlock quizzes for free by uploading documents