A 36-year-old woman comes to the physician for a rash on her lower abdomen. The rash first appeared 3 months ago and has been slowly expanding in the same area. It is mildly pruritic but otherwise asymptomatic. Treatment with topical emollients has not been beneficial. The patient has a history of depression for which she takes citalopram but is otherwise healthy. Skin examination findings are shown in the image below.
Which of the following is the most likely explanation for this patient's symptoms?
A) Allergic contact dermatitis
B) Chronic plaque psoriasis
C) Dermatophyte infection
D) Dyshidrotic dermatitis
E) Lichen simplex chronicus
Correct Answer:
Verified
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