A 25-year-old African-American medical student comes to see you in the office. His girlfriend noticed an area of circular hair loss over the back of his head. He is concerned that he is losing his hair and will be bald soon. He is otherwise in good health and denies any history of smoking, alcohol, or illicit drug use. He has had a monogamous relationship with his girlfriend for the past three years. On examination, there is a 1 cm area of complete, smooth and circular hair loss with distinct margins. There is no scaling or inflammation present in or around the area of hair loss.
Which of the following is the most appropriate treatment for this condition?
A) Topical antifungals
B) A single intramuscular injection of penicillin G
C) Intralesional corticosteroids
D) Oral corticosteroids
E) Topical tacrolimus
Correct Answer:
Verified
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