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A 65-Year-Old Postmenopausal Woman Comes to the Office for Evaluation

Question 347

Multiple Choice

A 65-year-old postmenopausal woman comes to the office for evaluation of dyspareunia.  The patient recently became sexually active after 7 years of abstinence after the death of her husband.  She has a new partner and has pain with intercourse but has had no postcoital or postmenopausal bleeding.  The patient was last seen in the office 10 years ago when she underwent treatment for biopsy-proven lichen sclerosus.  Her symptoms improved after she was treated with high-dose topical corticosteroids.  Pap test at that time was normal.  The patient has type 2 diabetes mellitus and hypertension, for which she takes metformin and an ACE inhibitor.  She had 3 vaginal deliveries when she was in her 20s.  The patient stopped smoking 5 years ago and does not use alcohol or illicit drugs.  Family history is noncontributory.  Blood pressure is 128/82 mm Hg and pulse is 72/min.  BMI is 28 kg/m2.  Pelvic examination shows a raised, pigmented lesion over the clitoral hood and extending to the right labium majus.  Multiple areas of excoriations are noted throughout the vulva.  There is no palpable inguinal lymphadenopathy.  Speculum examination reveals an atrophic vagina and a cervix with no visible lesions.  Which of the following is the best next step in management of this patient?


A) Laser therapy
B) Lidocaine ointment
C) Topical corticosteroids
D) Topical estrogen
E) Vulvar biopsy

Correct Answer:

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