A 26-year-old woman comes to the emergency department due to diarrhea. For the last 2 days she has had abrupt-onset diarrhea associated with crampy lower abdominal pain and fatigue. The patient is experiencing 4-6 watery bowel movements daily with visible blood throughout the stool. She reports no ill contacts and has not traveled outside the United States in the last 2 years. Medical history is notable only for a severe peanut allergy, and her only medication is an oral contraceptive. The patient does not use alcohol, but smokes up to 5 cigarettes daily and occasionally uses marijuana. Temperature is 37.5 C (99.5 F) , blood pressure is 110/76 mm Hg, and pulse is 90/min. Abdominal examination reveals normal bowel sounds with mild diffuse tenderness and no peritoneal signs. Laboratory results are as follows:
Which of the following is the most appropriate response to this patient?
A) We need to order a stool culture and a test for Shiga toxin.
B) We need to perform a flexible sigmoidoscopy.
C) We need to test you for Clostridium difficile infection.
D) You need to come to the hospital for intravenous antibiotics.
E) You should increase your fluid intake and follow up with your doctor in a few days.
Correct Answer:
Verified
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