A 41-year-old woman, gravida 1 para 1, comes to the office for persistent vaginal spotting and lower abdominal pain following an uncomplicated delivery 4 months ago. Since then, she has had bloody discharge of decreasing volume that has not completely resolved. For the past month, the patient has used a sanitary pad that is stained but not saturated with blood at the end of the day. The abdominal pain has been mild but constant and is minimally relieved by over-the-counter analgesics. The patient's last Pap test, during her initial prenatal visit, was normal. Human papillomavirus testing at that time was negative. She is breastfeeding her infant, who is doing well. The patient is a former smoker who has not used alcohol since prior to pregnancy and does not use illicit drugs. Temperature is 36.7 C (98.1 F) , blood pressure is 110/70 mm Hg, pulse is 68/min, and respirations are 18/min. BMI is 30 kg/m2. Abdominal examination reveals mild lower abdominal tenderness to deep palpation but no masses, rebound, or guarding. Pelvic examination reveals an enlarged uterus and no adnexal masses. Speculum examination shows a dark, irregular 2-cm lesion on the posterior fornix that bleeds after contact with an applicator, with scant blood in the vaginal vault. A urine pregnancy test is positive. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis for this patient?
A) Choriocarcinoma
B) Endometrial polyp
C) Incomplete abortion
D) Prolapsing cervical leiomyoma
E) Sarcoma botryoides
Correct Answer:
Verified
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