A 33-year-old woman comes to the office for a contraception prescription. The patient previously used oral contraceptive pills for menstrual regulation and acne treatment, but she frequently forgot to take them, resulting in an unintended pregnancy 2 years ago. During her pregnancy, she gained 36.3 kg (80 lb) and has been unable to return to her prepregnancy weight. Her postpartum course was complicated by severe postpartum depression requiring a brief hospitalization, and she does not want to become pregnant again. The patient has not been sexually active since the delivery but recently started a new relationship. She has no other chronic medical conditions and no previous surgeries. The patient has had normal routine Pap testing. Her menses occur every 45-90 days with 5-6 days of heavy bleeding and passage of large clots. The patient's mother has type 2 diabetes mellitus and her paternal grandmother had ovarian cancer. She does not use tobacco, alcohol, or illicit drugs. BMI is 33 kg/m2. Physical examination is normal. Serum chemistries, prolactin, and TSH levels are normal. Urine pregnancy test is negative. Pelvic ultrasound reveals a small anteverted uterus and multifollicular ovaries bilaterally. Which of the following is the best contraceptive option for this patient?
A) Copper-containing intrauterine device
B) Cyclic progestin-only pills
C) Laparoscopic tubal ligation
D) Low-dose combination oral contraceptive pills
E) Progestin-containing intrauterine device
Correct Answer:
Verified
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